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4-chloro-o-toluidine hydrochloride [2]
202-441-6 [1]
221-627-8 [2]
95-69-2 [1]
3165-93-3 [2]
Carc.Cat.2; R45
Muta.Cat.3; R68
T; R23/24/25
N; R50-53
T; N
R: 45-23/24/25-68-50/53
S: 53-45-60-61
2,4,5-trimethylaniline; [1]
2,4,5-trimethylaniline hydrochloride [2]
205-282-0 [1]
- [2]
137-17-7 [1]
21436-97-5 [2]
Carc.Cat.2; R45
T; R23/24/25
N; R51-53
T; N
R: 45-23/24/25-51/53
S: 53-45-61
4,4'-thiodianiline and its salts
205-370-9
139-65-1
Carc.Cat.2; R45
Xn; R22
N; R51-53
T; N
R: 45-22-51/53
S: 53-45-61
4,4'-oxydianiline and its salts;
p-aminophenyl ether
202-977-0
101-80-4
Carc.Cat.2; R45
Muta.Cat.2; R46
Repr.Cat.3; R62
T; R23/24/25
N; R51-53
T; N
R: 45-46-23/24/25-62-51/53
S: 53-45-61
2,4-diaminoanisole;
4-methoxy-m-phenylenediamine; [1]
2,4-diaminoanisole sulphate [2]
210-406-1 [1]
254-323-9 [2]
615-05-4 [1]
39156-41-7 [2]
Carc.Cat.2; R45
Muta.Cat.3; R68
Xn; R22
N; R51-53
T; N
R: 45-22-68-51/53
S: 53-45-61
N,N,N',N'-tetramethyl-4,4'-methylendianiline
202-959-2
101-61-1
Carc.Cat.2; R45
N; R50-53
T; N
R: 45-50/53
S: 53-45-60-61
3,4-dichloroaniline
202-448-4
95-76-1
T; R23/24/25
Xi; R41
R43
N; R50-53
T; N
R: 23/24/25-41-43-50/53
S: (1/2-)26-36/37/39-45-60-61
C.I. Basic Violet 3;
4-[4,4'-bis(dimethylamino) benzhydrylidene]cyclohexa-2,5-dien-1-ylidene]dimethylammonium chloride
208-953-6
548-62-9
Carc.Cat.3; R40
Xn; R22
Xi; R41
N; R50-53
Xn; N
R: 22-40-41-50/53
S: (2-)26-36/37/39-46-60-61
C.I. Basic Violet 3 with ≥ 0.1% of Michler's ketone (EC no. 202-027-5)
208-953-6
548-62-9
Carc.Cat.2; R45
Xn; R22
Xi; R41
N; R50-53
T; N
R: 45-22-41-50/53
S: 53-45-60-61
famoxadone;
3-anilino-5-methyl-5-(4-phenoxyphenyl)-1,3-oxazolidine-2,4-dione
-
131807-57-3
Xn; R48/22
N; R50-53
Xn; N
R: 48/22-50/53
S: (2-)46-60-61
4-ethoxyaniline;
p-phenetidine
205-855-5
156-43-4
Muta. Cat. 3; R68
Xn; R20/21/22
Xi; R36
R43
Xn
R: 20/21/22-36-43-68
S: (2-)36/37-46
6-methoxy-m-toluidine;
p-cresidine
204-419-1
120-71-8
Carc.Cat.2; R45
Xn; R22
T
R: 45-22
S: 53-45
5-nitro-o-toluidine; [1]
5-nitro-o-toluidine hydrochloride [2]
202-765-8 [1]
256-960-8 [2]
99-55-8 [1]
51085-52-0 [2]
Carc.Cat.3; R40
T; R23/24/25
R52-53
T
R: 23/24/25-40-52/53
S: (1/2-)36/37-45-61
N-[(benzotriazole-1-yl)methyl)]-4-carboxybenzenesulfonamide
416-470-9
-
Xi; R36
N; R51-53
Xi; N
R: 36-51/53
S: (2-)26-61
2,6-dichloro-4-trifluoromethylaniline
416-430-0
24279-39-8
Xn; R20/22
Xi; R38
R43
N; R50-53
Xn; N
R: 20/22-38-43-50/53
S: (2-)24-37-60-61
isobutylidene-(2-(2-isopropyl-4,4-dimethyloxazolidine-3-yl)-1,1-dimethylethyl)amine
419-850-2
148348-13-4
C; R34
R52-53
C
R: 34-52/53
S: (1/2-)23-26-36/37/39-45-61
4-(2,2-diphenylethenyl)-N,N-di-phenylbenzenamine
421-390-2
89114-90-9
R 53
R: 53
S: 61
3-chloro-2-(isopropylthio)aniline
421-700-6
179104-32-6
Xi; R38
N; R51-53
Xi; N
R: 38-51/53
S: (2-)37-61
1-methoxy-2-propylamine
422-550-4
37143-54-7
F; R11
C; R34
Xn; R22
R52-53
F; C
R: 11-22-34-52/53
S: (1/2-)9-26-36/37/39-45-61
ethyleneimine;
aziridine
205-793-9
151-56-4
F; R11
Carc. Cat. 2; R45
Muta. Cat. 2; R46
T+; R26/27/28
C; R34
N; R51-53
F; T+; N
R: 45-46-11-26/27/28-34-51/53
S: 53-45-61
pyridine
203-809-9
110-86-1
F; R11
Xn; R20/21/22
F; Xn
R: 11-20/21/22
S: (2-)26-28
C ≥ 5 %: Xn; R20/21/22
1,2,3,4-tetranitrocarbazole
-
6202-15-9
E
R1
Xn; R20/21/22
E; Xn
R: 1-20/21/22
S: (2-)35
crimidine (ISO);
2-chloro-6-methylpyrimidin-4-yldimethylamine
208-622-6
535-89-7
T+; R28
T+
R: 28
S: (1/2-)36/37-45
desmetryne (ISO);
6-isopropylamino-2-methylamino-4-methylthio-1,3,5-triazine
213-800-1
1014-69-3
Xn; R21/22
N; R50-53
Xn; N
R: 21/22-50/53
S: (2-)36/37-60-61
dazomet (ISO);
tetrahydro-3,5-dimethyl-1,3,5-thiadiazine-2-thione
208-576-7
533-74-4
Xn; R22
Xi; R36
N; R50-53
Xn; N
R: 22-36-50/53
S: (2-)15-22-24-60-61
2,4,6-trichloro-1,3,5-triazine;
cyanuric chloride
203-614-9
108-77-0
T+; R26
Xn; R22
C; R34
R43
R14
T+; C
R: 14-22-26-34-43
S: (1/2-)26-28-36/37/39-45-46-63
C ≥ 25 %: T+; R22-26-34-43
10 % ≤ C < 25 %: T+; R26-34-43
7 % ≤ C < 10 %: T+; R26-36/37/38-43
5 % ≤ C < 7 %: T; R23-36/37/38-43
1 % ≤ C < 5 %: T; R23-43
0,1 % ≤ C < 1 %: Xn; R20
ametryn (ISO);
2-ethylamino-4-isopropylamino-6-methylthio-1,3,5-triazine
212-634-7
834-12-8
Xn; R22
N; R50-53
Xn; N
R: 22-50/53
S: (2-)36-60-61
amitrole (ISO);
1,2,4-triazol-3-ylamine
200-521-5
61-82-5
Repr.Cat.3; R63
Xn; R48/22
N; R51-53
Xn; N
R: 48/22-63-51/53
S: (2-)13-36/37-61
bentazone (ISO);
3-isopropyl-2,1,3-benzothiadiazine-4-one-2,2-dioxide
246-585-8
25057-89-0
Xn; R22
Xi; R36
R43
R52-53
Xn
R: 22-36-43-52/53
S: (2-)24-37-61
cyanazine (ISO);
2-(4-chloro-6-ethylamino-1,3,5-triazine-2-ylamino)-2-methylpropionitrile
244-544-9
21725-46-2
Xn; R22
N; R50-53
Xn; N
R: 22-50/53
S: (2-)37-60-61
ethoxyquin;
6-ethoxy-1,2-dihydro-2,2,4-trimethylquinoline
202-075-7
91-53-2
Xn; R22
Xn
R: 22
S: (2-)24
fenazaflor (ISO);
phenyl 5,6-dichloro-2-trifluoromethylbenzimidazole-1-carboxylate
238-134-9
14255-88-0
Xn; R21/22
N; R50-53
Xn; N
R: 21/22-50/53
S: (2-)36/37-60-61
fuberidazole;
2-(2-furyl)benzimidazole
223-404-0
3878-19-1
Xn; R22
N; R50-53
Xn; N
R: 22-50/53
S: (2-)22-60-61
bis (8-hydroxyquinolinium) sulphate
205-137-1
134-31-6
Xn; R22
Xn
R: 22
S: (2-)36
morfamquat (ISO);
1,1'-bis(3,5-dimethylmorpholinocarbonylmethyl)-4,4'-bipyridilium ion
-
7411-47-4
Xn; R22
Xi; R36/37/38
R52-53
Xn
R: 22-36/37/38-52/53
S: (2-)22-36-61
thioquinox;
2-thio-1,3-dithiolo(4,5,b)quinoxaline
202-272-8
93-75-4
Xn; R22
Xn
R: 22
S: (2-)24
tridemorph (ISO);
2,6-dimethyl-4-tridecylmorpholine
246-347-3
24602-86-6
Repr. Cat. 2; R61
Xn; R20/22
Xi; R38
N; R50-53
T; N
R: 61-20/22-38-50/53
S: 53-45-60-61
dithianon (ISO);
5,10-dihydro-5,10-dioxonaphtho(2,3-b)(1,4)dithiazine-2,3-dicarbonitrile
222-098-6
3347-22-6
Xn; R22
N; R50-53
Xn; N
R: 22-50/53
S: (2-)24-60-61
pyrethrins including cinerins
-
-
Xn; R20/21/22
N; R50-53
Xn; N
R: 20/21/22-50/53
S: (2-)13-60-61
2-methyl-4-oxo-3-(penta-2,4-dienyl)cyclopent-2-enyl [1R-[1α[S*(Z)],3β]]-chrysanthemate;
pyrethrin I
204-455-8
121-21-1
Xn; R20/21/22
N; R50-53
Xn; N
R: 20/21/22-50/53
S: (2-)13-60-61
2-methyl-4-oxo-3-(penta-2,4-dienyl)cyclopent-2-enyl[1R-[1α[S*(Z)](3β)]]-3-(3-methoxy-2-methyl-3-oxoprop-1-enyl)-2,2-dimethylcyclopropanecarboxylate;
pyrethrin II
204-462-6
121-29-9
Xn; R20/21/22
N; R50-53
Xn; N
R: 20/21/22-50/53
S: (2-)13-60-61
cinerin I;
3-(but-2-enyl)-2-methyl-4-oxocyclopent-2-enyl 2,2-dimethyl-3-(2-methylprop-1-enyl)cyclopropanecarboxylate
246-948-0
25402-06-6
Xn; R22
N; R50-53
Xn; N
R: 22-50/53
S: (2-)60-61
cinerin II;
3-(but-2-enyl)-2-methyl-4-oxocyclopent-2-enyl 2,2-dimethyl-3-(3-methoxy-2-methyl-3-oxoprop-1-enyl)cyclopropanecarboxylate
204-454-2
121-20-0
Xn; R22
N; R50-53
Xn; N
R: 22-50/53
S: (2-)60-61
piperidine
203-813-0
110-89-4
F; R11
T; R23/24
C; R34
F; T
R: 11-23/24-34
S: (1/2-)16-26-27-45
C ≥ 5 %: T; R23/24-34
1 % ≤ C < 5 %: Xn; R20/21-36/38
morpholine
203-815-1
110-91-8
R10
Xn; R20/21/22
C; R34
C
R: 10-20/21/22-34
S: (1/2-)23-36-45
C ≥ 25 %: C; R20/21/22-34
10 % ≤ C < 25 %: C; R34
1 % ≤ C < 10 %: Xi; R36/38
dichloro-1,3,5-triazinetrione;
dichloroisocyanuric acid
220-487-5
2782-57-2
O; R8
Xn; R22
R31
Xi; R36/37
N; R50-53
O; Xn; N
R: 8-22-31-36/37-50/53
S: (2-)8-26-41-60-61
troclosene potassium; [1]
troclosene sodium [2]
218-828-8 [1]
220-767-7 [2]
2244-21-5 [1]
2893-78-9 [2]
O; R8
Xn; R22
R31
Xi; R36/37
N; R50-53
O; Xn; N
R: 8-22-31-36/37-50/53
S: (2-)8-26-41-60-61
C ≥ 10 %: Xn; R22-31-36/37
troclosene sodium, dihydrate
220-767-7
51580-86-0
Xn; R22
R31
Xi; R36/37
N; R50-53
Xn; N
R: 22-31-36/37-50/53
S: (2-)8-26-41-60-61
symclosene;
trichloroisocyanuric acid;
trichloro-1,3,5-triazinetrion
201-782-8
87-90-1
O; R8
Xn; R22
R31
Xi; R36/37
N; 50-53
O; Xn; N
R: 8-22-31-36/37-50/53
S: (2-)8-26-41-60-61
methyl-2,3,5,6-tetrachloro-4-pyridylsulphone;
2,3,5,6-tetrachloro-4-(methylsulphonyl)pyridine
236-035-5
13108-52-6
Xn; R21/22
Xi; R36
R43
Xn
R: 21/22-36-43
S: (2-)26-28
2-methylaziridine;
propyleneimine
200-878-7
75-55-8
F; R11
Carc. Cat. 2; R45
T+; R26/27/28
Xi; R41
N; R51-53
F; T+; N
R: 45-11-26/27/28-41-51/53
S: 53-45-61
C ≥ 25 %: T+, N; R45-26/27/28-41-51/53
10 % ≤ C < 25 %: T+; R45-26/27/28-41-52/53
7 % ≤ C < 10 %: T+; R45-26/27/28-36-52/53
5 % ≤ C < 7 %: T; R45-23/24/25-36-52/53
2,5 % ≤ C < 5 %: T; R45-23/24/25-52/53
1 % ≤ C < 2,5 %: T; R45-23/24/25
0,1 % ≤ C < 1 %: T; R45-20/21/22
0,01 % ≤ C < 0,1 %: T; R45
1,2-dimethylimidazole
217-101-2
1739-84-0
Xn; R22
Xi; R38-41
Xn
R: 22-38-41
S: (2-)24-26
1-methylimidazole
210-484-7
616-47-7
Xn; R21/22
C; R34
C
R: 21/22-34
S: (1/2-)26-36-45
2-methylpyridine;
2-picoline
203-643-7
109-06-8
R10
Xn; R20/21/22
Xi; R36/37
Xn
R: 10-20/21/22-36/37
S: (2-)26-36
4-methylpyridine;
4-picoline
203-626-4
108-89-4
R10
T; R24
Xn; R20/22
Xi; R36/37/38
T
R: 10-20/22-24-36/37/38
S: (1/2-)26-36-45
6-phenyl-1,3,5-triazine-2,4-diyldiamine;
6-phenyl-1,3,5-triazine-2,4-diamine;
benzoguanamine
202-095-6
91-76-9
Xn; R22
R52-53
Xn
R: 22-52/53
S: (2-)61
ethylene thiourea;
imidazolidine-2-thione;
2-imidazoline-2-thiol
202-506-9
96-45-7
Repr. Cat. 2; R61
Xn; R22
T
R: 61-22
S: 53-45
azaconazole (ISO);
1-{[2-(2,4-dichlorophenyl)-1,3-dioxolan-2-yl]methyl}-1